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NR283 final exam practice questions, Exams of Advanced Education

University of OxfordAdvanced Education

NR283 final exam practice questions

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 02/11/2026

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NR283 final exam practice questions
What kind of solution would a nurse give a patient who has very concentrated blood
serum?
Patient is hypertonic, so do the opposite. Hypo= into tissues hyper= from the
tissues into the bloodstream
a. A hypertonic solution so that the fluid moves out of the blood stream and into the
tissues
b. A hypotonic solution so that the fluid will move out of the blood stream and into
the tissues
c. An isotonic solution so that the fluid volume will increase overall
d. A hypotonic solution so that the fluid will move into the blood and out of the
tissues - correct answer b. A hypotonic solution so that the fluid will move out of the
blood stream and into the tissues
What is the main difference between aldosterone and ADH?
a. Aldosterone causes an increase in water volume due to the reabsorption of salt
b. ADH causes an increase in water volume due to the reabsorption of salt
c. Aldosterone causes an increase in urine output
d. ADH causes a decrease in blood pressure - correct answer a. Aldosterone causes
an increase in water volume due to the reabsorption of salt
What secretes ADH?
a. The hypothalamus
b. The kidneys
c. The pituitary gland
d. The thymus - correct answer c. The pituitary gland
What secretes aldosterone?
a. The pituitary gland
b. The thymus
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NR283 final exam practice questions

What kind of solution would a nurse give a patient who has very concentrated blood serum? Patient is hypertonic, so do the opposite. Hypo= into tissues hyper= from the tissues into the bloodstream a. A hypertonic solution so that the fluid moves out of the blood stream and into the tissues b. A hypotonic solution so that the fluid will move out of the blood stream and into the tissues c. An isotonic solution so that the fluid volume will increase overall d. A hypotonic solution so that the fluid will move into the blood and out of the tissues - correct answer b. A hypotonic solution so that the fluid will move out of the blood stream and into the tissues What is the main difference between aldosterone and ADH? a. Aldosterone causes an increase in water volume due to the reabsorption of salt b. ADH causes an increase in water volume due to the reabsorption of salt c. Aldosterone causes an increase in urine output d. ADH causes a decrease in blood pressure - correct answer a. Aldosterone causes an increase in water volume due to the reabsorption of salt What secretes ADH? a. The hypothalamus b. The kidneys c. The pituitary gland d. The thymus - correct answer c. The pituitary gland What secretes aldosterone? a. The pituitary gland b. The thymus

c. The adrenal gland d. The kidneys - correct answer c. The adrenal gland What is the goal of the RAAS system? a. To decrease overall blood volume and decrease blood pressure b. To increase overall blood volume and increase blood pressure c. To give the liver more albumin d. To increase overall blood volume and decrease blood pressure - correct answer b. To increase overall blood volume and increase blood pressure Which hormone meets with what to create aldosterone? a. Angiotensin I meets with angiotension II b. Renin meets with ACE c. Angiotensin II meets with the adrenal gland which creates ADH d. Angiotensin II meets with the adrenal gland which creates aldosterone - correct answer d. Angiotensin II meets with the adrenal gland which creates aldosterone What electrolyte is responsible for most neurological functions? a. Potassium b. Magnesium c. Calcium d. Sodium - correct answer d. Sodium True or false, sodium is primarily responsible for neurologic function, potassium is primarily responsible for cardiac function, and calcium is primarily responsible for muscular function a. True b. false - correct answer a. True if a patient is in respiratory alkalosis - what is the most likely scenario? a. They have had chronic renal failure for two years

b. Ignores growth restrictions and has limited angiogenesis capabilities c. Invades tissues quickly and mutates slowly d. Decreased replication and increased angiogenesis - correct answer a. Evades apoptosis and mutates quickly

  1. What is a normal range for erythrocytes a. 100,000-500, b. 4-6 million c. 10-20 million d. 20,000-50,000 - correct answer b. 4-6 million
  2. a nurse understands that preload is: a. the amount of blood in the atrium at the end of diastole b. the amount of blood in the aorta at the end of systole c. the amount of force the heart uses to push the blood out of the ventricle d. the volume of blood in ventricles at the end of diastole - correct answer d. the volume of blood in ventricles at the end of diastole
  3. all of these options are types of anemia EXCEPT: a. hemorrhagic loses b. erythrocyte destruction/malfunction c. impaired production of erythrocytes d. loss of white blood cells and cytokines - correct answer d. loss of white blood cells and cytokines
  4. which patient is MOST at risk for iron deficiency? a. A pregnant woman who is vegetarian b. A body builder who works 6 days a week c. A child who has been diagnosed with autism d. A pregnant woman who works out 4 days a week - correct answer a. A pregnant woman who is vegetarian
  1. True or false- cycle cell anemia causes a decrease in overall RBC count which directly causes hypoxia... decrease in oxygen deliver. Bc cells are miss shaped a. True b. False - correct answer b. False
  2. The nurse understands that a patient experiencing Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation is experiencing: a. Clotting excessively b. Extreme bleeding c. Clotting excessively and bleeding simultaneously d. Has a high red blood cell count in addition to a high white blood cell count - correct answer c. Clotting excessively and bleeding simultaneously
  3. The nurse is trying to calculate a patient's cardiac output after abdominal surgery. She uses this formula: a. CO = HR X SV b. CO = SV X MAP c. CO = MAP X HR d. CO = HR X SV / MAP - correct answer a. CO = HR X SV
  4. The nurse understands that afterload is: a. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole b. The resistance the left ventricle must overcome to circulate blood throughout the body c. The amount the heart has to stretch to push the blood out of the atria d. The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of systole - correct answer b. The resistance the left ventricle must overcome to circulate blood throughout the body
  5. what patient is MOST at risk for deep vein thrombosis? a. a 21 year old female on birth control

a. Excessive bleeding and anemia b. Osteoporosis and compartment syndrome c. Flank pain and dyspnea d. Dyspnea and angina - correct answer d. Dyspnea and angina

  1. What is myocardial ischemia? A. Heart attack B. Stroke C. chest pain D. coronary artery disease - correct answer D. coronary artery disease
  2. a patient with alectasis is most likely experiencing a problem with: a. ventilation b. respiration c. perfusion d. bronchiole constriction - correct answer b. respiration
  3. who is MOST at risk for pleural effusion? a. A 20 year old man who just had his tonsils removed b. A 29 year old female with asthma c. A 90 year old female with DVT who had a pneumothorax from an accident when she was 10 years old d. A 56 year old man who just had a kidney transplant and has been bedridden for two weeks - correct answer d. A 56 year old man who just had a kidney transplant and has been bedridden for two weeks
  4. A 30 year old male who just got out of surgery to remove his appendix is experiencing aspiration right after the nurse delivers his lunch. The patient is most likely having issues with: a. Dysphagia b. Dysphasia

c. Both A and B d. Right heart failure - correct answer c. Both A and B

  1. Which pulmonary disorder is NOT a COPD? a. Emphysema b. Asthma c. Acute bronchitis d. chronic bronchitis - correct answer c. Acute bronchitis
  2. a pulmonary embolism causes tissue damage in the: a. heart b. bronchiole membrane c. pulmonary vascular bed d. left ventricle - correct answer c. pulmonary vascular bed
  3. what is the leading cause of death by curable disease? a. Tuberculosis b. Meningitis c. Emphysema d. Myocardial infarction - correct answer a. Tuberculosis
  4. GERD is a malfunction of what part of the GI tract? a. Duodenum of the small intestine b. Epiglottis c. Jejunic sphincter of the small intestine d. Pyloric sphincter - correct answer d. Pyloric sphincter
  5. Match the correct risk factor with its corresponding disease a. GERD and peptic ulcers b. Peptic ulcers and gastritis
  1. What is the main cause of portal hypertension? a. Right heart failure b. Cirrhosis from liver failure c. Consuming too many NSAID's d. Jaundice from liver failure - correct answer b. Cirrhosis from liver failure
  2. What does portal hypertension put the patient at risk for? a. Hemmhoragic shock b. Low blood pressure c. Right heart failure d. JVD - correct answer a. Hemmhoragic shock
  3. A 35 year old patient comes into the ER. He states he has been smoking for 14 years and has a distended stomach. he complains of vomiting blood and states his "stomach really hurts". What is most likely the case? a. The patient is experiencing systemic hypertension and kidney failure b. The patient is experiencing portal hypertension c. The patient is experiencing right heart failure d. The patient has peptic ulcers that have led to gastritis - correct answer b. The patient is experiencing portal hypertension
  4. What causes jaundice? a. Failure of the liver to produce bilirubin and eliminate it b. Failure of the liver to conjugate bilirubin c. Failure of platelets to conjugate bilirubin d. Failure of hepatocytes to conjugate bile - correct answer b. Failure of the liver to conjugate bilirubin
  5. What cells are the first ones to arrive at the site of inflammation? a. Basophils b. Eosinophils

c. Monocytes d. Neutrophil - correct answer d. Neutrophil

  1. What is the role of bradykinin in the immune response? a. Vasodilation and capillary permeability b. Pain and fever c. Chemotaxis and pain d. Pain and increased cap permeability - correct answer c. Chemotaxis and pain
  2. What is the immune response of a mast cell? a. Degranulates and Releases histamines as a response to inflammation b. Degranulates and releases chemical mediators to the site of injury c. Is activated and releases chemical mediators to recognize foreign bodies at the site of injury d. Degranulates and releases histamine and prostaglandin to vasoconstrict vessels at the site of injury - correct answer b. Degranulates and releases chemical mediators to the site of injury
  3. What is IgA immunoglobulin responsible for? a. Allergic response b. Activate B cells c. Blood transfusion reactions d. Tears and saliva - correct answer d. Tears and saliva
  4. What hypersensitivity type are formation of immune complex clumps? a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV - correct answer c. Type III
  5. What type of immunity is a vaccine for the flu?
  1. Which one is NOT an autoimmune disease? a. Diabetes insipidus b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Type I diabetes d. Grave's Disease - correct answer a. Diabetes insipidus
  2. What patient is MOST at risk for insulin shock? a. A type II diabetes patient who forgot to take their insulin injection b. A type I diabetes patient who accidentally injected too much insulin c. A diabetes insipidus patient who has heart failure and forgot their insulin injection d. A type II diabetes patient who has DVT - correct answer b. A type I diabetes patient who accidentally injected too much insulin
  3. All are true about diabetic ketoacidosis EXCEPT: a. The patient experiences hypoglycemia b. The patient experiences metabolic acidosis c. The patient experiences hyperglycemia d. The patient has sweet smelling urine - correct answer a. The patient experiences hypoglycemia
  4. All are true about osteoporosis EXCEPT: a. A risk factor is a woman finishing menopause b. Clinical manifestation is silent c. It is a chronic disease d. It is an increase in osteoblast activity - correct answer d. It is an increase in osteoblast activity
  5. What is the most common age-related joint disorder? a. Osteoarthritis b. Osteoporosis

c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Parkinson's disease - correct answer a. Osteoarthritis

  1. True or false: rheumatoid arthritis is caused by old age and the degrading of cartilage by B cells a. True b. False - correct answer b. False
  2. What is a complication of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Rheumatoid nodules invade other systems b. Inflammation in synovial joints c. Pain relief upon movement of joints d. Fever and inflammation - correct answer a. Rheumatoid nodules invade other systems
  3. What is NOT a function of the kidneys? a. Regulate blood pressure b. Remove waste products c. Regulate water levels d. Stores red blood cells - correct answer d. Stores red blood cells
  4. A renal calculi located in the left ureter would be a: a. intrarenal obstruction b. prerenal obstruction c. postrenal obstruction d. preictal obstruction - correct answer c. postrenal obstruction
  5. what is the main cause of glomerulonephritis? a. Direct damage to the kidney b. Strep infection

c. Dysuria d. Fever and chills - correct answer b. Oliguria

  1. Why would a patient with chronic kidney disease be experiencing immune suppression? a. Decreased urea in the blood increases death rate of WBC's b. Increased urea in the blood increases death rate of WBC's c. Increased protein in the urine inhibits inflammatory response d. Decreased albumin causes spontaneous WBC death - correct answer b. Increased urea in the blood increases death rate of WBC's
  2. All of the following are expected findings for chronic kidney failure EXCEPT: a. Increased insulin b. Increased proteinuria c. Edema d. Increased blood pressure - correct answer a. Increased insulin
  3. Why does DM lead to chronic kidney disease? a. The high amounts of insulin in the blood stream causes the kidney vessels to constrict and dilate causing blockages b. The high amounts of glucose in the blood destroy the basement membrane of the kidneys c. The high amounts of insulin in the blood destroy the basement membranes of the kidneys d. The high amounts of sugar in the blood completely block the renal arteries - correct answer b. The high amounts of glucose in the blood destroy the basement membrane of the kidneys
  4. The parasympathetic system does all the following EXCEPT: a. Stimulates flow of saliva b. Stimulates release of bile c. Dilates bronchi

d. Contracts bladder - correct answer c. Dilates bronchi

  1. Which pathway lowers the pain threshold with prostaglandin and histamine? a. Inhibitory b. Endogenous c. Excitatory d. Sensory - correct answer c. Excitatory
  2. What is the role of endorphins for pain? a. Prevent transmission of pain signals b. Prevent transduction of pain signals c. Prevent translation of pain signals d. Decrease pain threshold - correct answer a. Prevent transmission of pain signals
  3. A woman is in the ER for chronic neuropathic pain. The nurse gives the patient a deep tissue massage to control the pain. This is an example of: a. Expectancy-related cortical activation b. Segmental pain inhibitors c. Diffuse noxious inhibitory control d. Placebo - correct answer c. Diffuse noxious inhibitory control
  4. Dementia is caused by all of the following EXCEPT: a. Neuron degeneration b. Atherosclerosis c. Brain trauma d. Rheumatoid arthritis - correct answer d. Rheumatoid arthritis
  5. What disease is the leading cause of severe cognitive dysfunction a. Alzheimers b. Demensia

B. Hypertension C. Lung cancer D. chlamydia - correct answer C. Lung cancer

  1. what do you need to watch out for with TIA patients? a. Myocardial infarction b. Stroke c. Seizures d. Pulmonary embolism - correct answer b. Stroke
  2. What type of stroke is most likely caused by atherosclerosis? a. Embolic b. Thrombotic c. Hemhorragic d. Intracranial aneyrism - correct answer b. Thrombotic
  3. Who is most at risk for meningitis? a. A 45 year old school teacher b. A 34 year old homeless man who frequents shelters c. A 10 year old boy with appendicitis d. A 3 year old with an ear infection - correct answer b. A 34 year old homeless man who frequents shelters