Download NR283 Pathophysiology Exam Paper — 200 Practice Questions with Solutions NR283 Pathophys and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!
NR283 Pathophysiology Exam Paper — 200 Practice
Questions with Solutions
NR283 Pathophysiology, divided into nine major topic sections that follow the typical Chamberlain University curriculum. Each question is followed by the correct answer and a brief rationale where helpful. All material is designed to mirror the style and difficulty of actual NR283 exams, and the content is verified for the 2026/2027 academic year. Section 1: Introduction to Pathophysiology (Questions 1–25) Q1. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease? A. An inherited disorder B. A combination of specific etiological factors C. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug D. Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment Correct Answer: C Rationale: An iatrogenic disease is caused by medical treatment, procedure, or error, such as an adverse drug reaction. Catheterization causing a bladder infection is another example. Q2. The manifestations of a disease are best defined as: A. Subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness B. Signs and symptoms of a disease C. Factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness D. Early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Manifestations refer to the clinical evidence or effects of a disease, including both signs (objective findings) and symptoms (subjective patient reports). Q3. The best definition of the term “prognosis” is: A. Precipitating factors causing an acute episode B. Number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness C. Predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease D. Exacerbations occurring during chronic illness Correct Answer: C Rationale: Prognosis refers to the expected outcome of a disease, including the likelihood of recovery and potential complications. Q4. Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease? A. Swelling of the knee B. Fever C. Pain in the neck D. Skin rash on the hand Correct Answer: B Rationale: Fever is a systemic manifestation because it involves the whole body, whereas local signs (e.g., swelling, pain, rash) are confined to a specific area. Q5. A patient has high blood pressure, elevated body temperature, and fluid imbalance. These factors indicate how well the body is maintaining: A. Pathogenesis B. Homeostasis
Rationale: The incubation period is the interval between exposure to a pathogen and the appearance of the first signs or symptoms. Q8. Which statement BEST describes secondary prevention? A. Preventing disease before it occurs (e.g., immunizations) B. Halting or slowing disease progression after it has been diagnosed C. Managing complicated, long-term health problems D. Eliminating all risk factors for disease Correct Answer: B Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and intervention to halt or slow disease progression after it has been diagnosed. Q9. The term “pathogenesis” refers to: A. The cause of a disease B. The predicted outcome of a disease C. The development of disease or sequence of events leading to tissue changes D. The identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms Correct Answer: C Rationale: Pathogenesis describes the development of disease or the sequence of events involved in tissue changes related to a specific disease process. Q10. A patient with rheumatoid arthritis has a condition that develops gradually and persists for a long time with intermittent acute episodes. This best describes: A. Acute disease B. Chronic disease
C. Latent disease D. Subclinical disease Correct Answer: B Rationale: Chronic diseases develop gradually, persist for a long time, and often cause permanent tissue damage, with intermittent acute episodes. Q11. Which of the following is an example of primary prevention? A. Administering insulin to a diabetic patient B. Prescribing antihypertensives for a patient with high blood pressure C. Administering vaccines to healthy children D. Performing physical therapy after a stroke Correct Answer: C Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs. Vaccinations are a classic example, along with education and controlling environmental hazards. Q12. A disease whose cause is unknown is termed: A. Iatrogenic B. Idiopathic C. Congenital D. Nosocomial Correct Answer: B Rationale: Idiopathic means the cause of a disease is unknown. Iatrogenic refers to treatment- caused disease, congenital to present at birth, and nosocomial to hospital-acquired infection.
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Cancer screening guidelines aim for early detection, which is secondary prevention— halting or slowing disease progression after risk factors have been identified. Q16. During the prodromal period, the patient: A. Has no clinical signs at all B. Is aware of a change in the body, but signs are nonspecific C. Has fully developed characteristic signs of the disease D. Is completely recovered from the disease Correct Answer: B Rationale: The prodromal period comprises the early development of disease when one is aware of a change in the body, but the signs are nonspecific. Q17. A patient who has been immobile for several weeks develops muscle wasting. The cellular change causing this is: A. Hypertrophy B. Atrophy C. Hyperplasia D. Metaplasia Correct Answer: B Rationale: Atrophy is a decrease in cell size resulting in reduced tissue mass, commonly caused by disuse, denervation, or malnutrition. Q18. Which of the following best describes tertiary prevention?
A. Helping healthy people stay healthy through immunizations B. Halt or slow disease progression after diagnosis C. Help manage complicated, long-term health problems D. Screen asymptomatic individuals for early disease detection Correct Answer: C Rationale: Tertiary prevention focuses on managing complicated, long-term health problems to improve quality of life and reduce disability. Q19. A patient experiences a sudden onset of high fever and severe pain lasting only a few days. This is characteristic of: A. Chronic disease B. Latent disease C. Acute disease D. Subclinical disease Correct Answer: C Rationale: Acute diseases develop quickly with marked signs such as high fever or severe pain and are short-term. Q20. A biopsy is performed to: A. Examine tissue after death to determine the exact cause of death B. Remove a small amount of living tissue for examination C. Identify a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms D. Prevent the spread of disease through prophylactic measures Correct Answer: B
C. Etiology D. Pathogenesis Correct Answer: C Rationale: Etiology refers to the factors that cause a particular disease, such as viruses, bacteria, or genetic abnormalities. Q24. A predisposition or tendency that promotes the development of disease in an individual is called: A. Prophylaxis B. Predisposing factor C. Idiopathic factor D. Pathogenic factor Correct Answer: B Rationale: Predisposing factors are tendencies that promote disease development in an individual, such as age, gender, environment, or inherited factors. Q25. A measure designed to preserve health and prevent the spread of disease is known as: A. Diagnosis B. Etiology C. Prognosis D. Prophylaxis Correct Answer: D Rationale: Prophylaxis includes measures to preserve health and prevent disease spread, such as daily baby aspirin to prevent heart attack.
Section 2: Cellular Adaptation & Injury (Questions 26–60) Q26. A patient with chronic hypertension develops thickening of the heart muscle. This represents which type of cellular adaptation? A. Atrophy B. Hypertrophy C. Hyperplasia D. Metaplasia Correct Answer: B Rationale: Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of individual cells, resulting in enlarged tissue mass. Cardiac myocytes enlarge in response to increased workload, but unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle does not undergo hyperplasia. Q27. Which cellular adaptation is characterized by a decrease in the size of cells, resulting in reduced tissue mass? A. Hypertrophy B. Hyperplasia C. Atrophy D. Metaplasia Correct Answer: C Rationale: Atrophy is a decrease in the size of cells, resulting in reduced tissue mass. It occurs when cells are not used (disuse atrophy), such as in a limb immobilized by a cast.
C. Caseous necrosis D. Fat necrosis Correct Answer: A Rationale: Coagulative necrosis is the typical pattern of cell death from hypoxia/ischemia in all solid organs except the brain. Tissue architecture is preserved initially, and the tissue remains firm, as seen in myocardial infarction. Q31. Which type of necrosis is typically seen in a brain infarction (stroke)? A. Coagulative necrosis B. Liquefactive necrosis C. Caseous necrosis D. Fat necrosis Correct Answer: B Rationale: Liquefactive necrosis occurs in the brain following infarction. The tissue becomes soft, liquefies, and is removed by phagocytes, forming a cystic cavity. Q32. A patient’s leg becomes black, dry, and shriveled due to lack of blood flow. This is: A. Wet gangrene B. Dry gangrene C. Gas gangrene D. Necrotizing fasciitis Correct Answer: B Rationale: Dry gangrene results from chronic ischemia, with slow, dry, blackened tissue due to coagulative necrosis. Wet gangrene involves bacterial infection and liquefaction.
Q33. The most common cause of cellular injury is: A. Chemical toxins B. Microorganisms C. Ischemia D. Nutritional deficits Correct Answer: C Rationale: Ischemia (decreased supply of oxygenated blood to tissue or organ) is the most common cause of cellular injury, leading to hypoxia and reduced cellular metabolism. Q34. In addition to ischemia, which of the following can cause cellular injury? (Select all that apply) A. Physical agents (excessive heat or cold) B. Chemical toxins C. Microorganisms D. Nutritional deficits Correct Answer: A, B, C, D Rationale: All of these can cause cellular injury. Other causes include abnormal metabolites accumulation, and fluid/electrolyte imbalances. Q35. Which type of cells is undifferentiated with variable nuclear and cell structures and numerous mitotic figures, often seen in malignant tumors? A. Dysplasia B. Anaplasia C. Metaplasia
Q38. Which type of necrosis occurs in the pancreas as a result of enzymatic digestion of tissue? A. Coagulative necrosis B. Liquefactive necrosis C. Caseous necrosis D. Fat necrosis Correct Answer: D Rationale: Fat necrosis typically occurs in the pancreas when pancreatic enzymes leak out and break down triglycerides into fatty acids, which then combine with calcium to form soapy deposits. It can also occur in breast tissue following trauma. Q39. The term “neoplasia” refers to: A. A decrease in cell size B. New growth, commonly called a tumor C. An increase in individual cell size D. Replacement of one cell type by another Correct Answer: B Rationale: Neoplasia means “new growth,” and a neoplasm is commonly called a tumor. It can be benign or malignant. Q40. A patient has an enlarged heart muscle due to chronic hypertension. Which of the following statements is true regarding this adaptation? A. Cardiac muscle cells have increased in number B. Cardiac muscle cells have increased in size C. This adaptation is always reversible
D. This is an example of physiologic hyperplasia Correct Answer: B Rationale: Chronic hypertension increases afterload, causing cardiac myocytes to enlarge. Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle does not undergo hyperplasia. This is pathological hypertrophy, which can lead to heart failure. Q41. Which statement is TRUE regarding cellular changes due to aging? A. The cellular changes are reversible B. DNA becomes less susceptible to injurious stimuli C. The cellular changes proceed slowly and in small increments D. Lipid, calcium, and plasma proteins are less likely to be deposited in vessel walls Correct Answer: C Rationale: Cellular aging changes proceed slowly and in small increments. DNA becomes more susceptible to injury, and substances like lipids and calcium are more likely to deposit in vessel walls. Q42. A patient has a bacterial infection that causes cell injury through microorganisms. Some microorganisms induce pyroptosis, resulting in: A. Increased cellular metabolism B. Rupture of the plasma membrane and release of lysosomal enzymes C. Cellular adaptation without inflammation D. Reversible cellular changes Correct Answer: B
B. Hypertrophy C. Apoptosis D. Metaplasia Correct Answer: C Rationale: Apoptosis is a form of programmed cell death, not a cellular adaptation. Atrophy, hypertrophy, hyperplasia, metaplasia, and dysplasia are adaptations. Q46. A patient develops a goiter due to increased thyroid-stimulating hormone secretion. The thyroid gland enlargement is due to: A. Atrophy B. Hypertrophy C. Hyperplasia D. Metaplasia Correct Answer: C Rationale: The thyroid gland enlarges due to hyperplasia (increased number of cells) in response to TSH stimulation. Some cell hypertrophy may also occur, but the primary mechanism is hyperplasia. Q47. A patient’s Pap smear shows cells of varying sizes and shapes with enlarged nuclei. The nurse understands this finding is: A. Benign and requires no follow-up B. Indicative of dysplasia and requires further evaluation C. A normal finding in postmenopausal women D. An indication of metaplasia
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Dysplasia is characterized by cells varying in size and shape with large nuclei, indicating a precancerous change that requires further evaluation. It may result from chronic irritation or infection. Q48. A patient with a vitamin A deficiency develops a change in the respiratory epithelium from columnar to squamous. This is: A. Dysplasia B. Hyperplasia C. Metaplasia D. Anaplasia Correct Answer: C Rationale: Metaplasia may result from a deficit of vitamin A. It is sometimes an adaptive mechanism that provides a more resistant tissue, but it decreases function. Q49. Which statement best describes the difference between benign and malignant neoplasms? A. Benign tumors spread to distant sites, malignant tumors do not B. Benign tumors are always life-threatening C. Malignant tumors are undifferentiated and can metastasize D. Malignant tumors grow slowly and are well-encapsulated Correct Answer: C Rationale: Malignant tumors are undifferentiated, nonfunctional, grow rapidly, and can metastasize. Benign tumors are usually well-differentiated, grow slowly, and do not metastasize. Q50. A patient experiences hypoxia as a result of ischemia. The nurse understands that hypoxia means:
