Docsity
Docsity
Prepare for your exams
Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Earn points to download
Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Guidelines and tips
Guidelines and tips
Sell on Docsity
Sell on Docsity
Docsity AI
Docsity AI
Log inSign up

Prepare for your exams

Study with the several resources on Docsity

Find documents

Prepare for your exams with the study notes shared by other students like you on Docsity

Search for your university

Find the specific documents for your university's exams

Docsity AINEW

Summarize your documents, ask them questions, convert them into quizzes and concept maps

Explore questions

Clear up your doubts by reading the answers to questions asked by your fellow students

Earn points to download

Earn points by helping other students or get them with a premium plan

Share documents
download point icon20 Points

For each uploaded document

Answer questions
download point icon5 Points

For each given answer (max 1 per day)

All the ways to get free points
Get points immediately

Choose a premium plan with all the points you need

Study Opportunities

Choose your next study program

Get in touch with the best universities in the world. Search through thousands of universities and official partners

Community

Ask the community

Ask the community for help and clear up your study doubts

Free resources

Our save-the-student-ebooks!

Download our free guides on studying techniques, anxiety management strategies, and thesis advice from Docsity tutors

NR283 Pathophysiology 100% Verified Solutions, Exams of Nursing

Virginia State University (VSU)Nursing

NR283 Pathophysiology 100% Verified Solutions

Typology: Exams

2025/2026

Available from 01/30/2026

hesigrader002
hesigrader002 🇺🇸

4.1

(43)

7.7K documents

1 / 160

Toggle sidebar

This page cannot be seen from the preview

Don't miss anything!

bg1
NR283 Pathophysiology 100% Verified
Solutions
1. Which of the following areas lacks blood vessels and nerves?
a. Epidermis
b. Dermis
c. Subcutaneous tissue
d. Fatty
tissue ANS: A
REF: 142
2. What is a raised, thin-walled lesion containing clear fluid called?
a. Papule
b. Pustule
c. Vesicle
d. Macul
e ANS: C
REF: 143
3. Which of the following is a common effect of a type I
hypersensitivity response to ingested substances?
a. Contact dermatitis
b. Urticaria
c. Discoid lupus erythematosus
d. Psoria
sis ANS: B
REF: 145
4. What change occurs in the skin with psoriasis?
a. Recurrent hypersensitivity reactions
b. Autoimmune response
c. Increased mitosis and shedding of epithelium
d. Basal cell
degeneration ANS: C
REF: 147
5. Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis?
a. Purplish papules that can erode and become open ulcers
b. Firm, raised pruritic nodules that can become cancerous
c. Moist, red vesicles, which develop into bleeding ulcers
d. Begins as a red papule and develops into
silvery plaques ANS: D REF: 147
pf3
pf4
pf5
pf8
pf9
pfa
pfd
pfe
pff
pf12
pf13
pf14
pf15
pf16
pf17
pf18
pf19
pf1a
pf1b
pf1c
pf1d
pf1e
pf1f
pf20
pf21
pf22
pf23
pf24
pf25
pf26
pf27
pf28
pf29
pf2a
pf2b
pf2c
pf2d
pf2e
pf2f
pf30
pf31
pf32
pf33
pf34
pf35
pf36
pf37
pf38
pf39
pf3a
pf3b
pf3c
pf3d
pf3e
pf3f
pf40
pf41
pf42
pf43
pf44
pf45
pf46
pf47
pf48
pf49
pf4a
pf4b
pf4c
pf4d
pf4e
pf4f
pf50
pf51
pf52
pf53
pf54
pf55
pf56
pf57
pf58
pf59
pf5a
pf5b
pf5c
pf5d
pf5e
pf5f
pf60
pf61
pf62
pf63
pf64

Partial preview of the text

Download NR283 Pathophysiology 100% Verified Solutions and more Exams Nursing in PDF only on Docsity!

NR283 Pathophysiology 100% Verified

Solutions

  1. Which of the following areas lacks blood vessels and nerves? a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Subcutaneous tissue d. Fatty tissue ANS: A REF: 142
  2. What is a raised, thin-walled lesion containing clear fluid called? a. Papule b. Pustule c. Vesicle d. Macul e ANS: C REF: 143
  3. Which of the following is a common effect of a type I hypersensitivity response to ingested substances? a. Contact dermatitis b. Urticaria c. Discoid lupus erythematosus d. Psoria sis ANS: B REF: 145
  4. What change occurs in the skin with psoriasis? a. Recurrent hypersensitivity reactions b. Autoimmune response c. Increased mitosis and shedding of epithelium d. Basal cell degeneration ANS: C REF: 147
  5. Which of the following best describes the typical lesion of psoriasis? a. Purplish papules that can erode and become open ulcers b. Firm, raised pruritic nodules that can become cancerous c. Moist, red vesicles, which develop into bleeding ulcers d. Begins as a red papule and develops into silvery plaques ANS: D REF: 147
  1. Why do secondary infections frequently develop in pruritic lesions? a. Loss of protective sebum b. Entry of resident flora while scratching the lesion c. Blockage of sebaceous glands d. Increased sweat production ANS: B REF: 148
  2. Which disease is considered an autoimmune disorder? a. Pemphigus b. Erysipelas c. Contact dermatitis d. Scleroder ma ANS: A REF: 147
  3. Which of the following skin lesions are usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus? a. Furuncles b. Verrucae c. Scabies d. Tinea ANS: A REF: 148
  4. Which of the following statements applies to impetigo? a. Lesions usually appear on the hands and arms. b. The cause is usually a virus. c. The infection is highly contagious. d. Scar tissue is common following infection. ANS: C REF: 148
  5. What is the common signal that a recurrence of herpes simplex infection is developing? a. Severe pain around the mouth b. Malaise and fatigue c. Fever and severe headaches d. Mild tingling along the nerve or on the lips ANS: D REF: 150
  6. Herpes virus is usually spread by all of the following EXCEPT: a. saliva during an exacerbation and for a short time thereafter. b. contact with the fluid in the lesion. c. contaminated blood. d. autoinoculation by fingers. ANS: C REF: 150
  1. How can pediculosis be diagnosed? a. Pruritus in hairy areas of the body b. Loss of blood due to lice bites c. Finding lice in clothing d. The presence of nits at the base of hair shafts ANS: D REF: 153
  2. What is the major predisposing factor to squamous cell carcinoma? a. Viral infection b. Presence of nevi (moles) on the skin c. Exposure to ultraviolet light d. Frequent hypersensitivity reactions ANS: C REF: 154
  3. All of the following statements apply to malignant melanoma EXCEPT: a. The malignant cell is a melanocyte. b. They present as non-pruritic purplish macules. c. The neoplasm grows rapidly and metastasizes early. d. The lesion is usually dark or multicolored with an irregular border. ANS: B REF: 155
  4. Which of the following factors has contributed to the increased incidence of Kaposi’s sarcoma? a. Excessive sun exposure b. Increased number of nevi c. Increase in immunosuppressed individuals d. Presence of more seborrheic keratoses ANS: C REF: 155
  5. Which of the following applies to actinic keratoses? a. They predispose to malignant melanoma. b. They arise on skin exposed to ultraviolet radiation. c. They occur primarily on dark-skinned persons. d. They are malignant and invasive. ANS: B REF: 154-
  6. Which lesion distinguishes Tinea corporis? a. Small, brown pruritic lines b. Painful and pruritic fissures c. Erythematous ring of vesicles with a clear center d. Firm, red, painful nodule or pustule ANS: C REF: 150
  1. Systemic effects of acute necrotizing fasciitis include: a. low-grade fever and malaise. b. toxic shock and disorientation. c. mild nausea and vomiting. d. headache and difficulty breathing. ANS: B REF: 149
  2. The cause of contact dermatitis can often be identified by: a. using a culture and sensitivity test on the exudate. b. checking the frequency of the exacerbations. c. noting the location and size of the lesion. d. the type of pain associated with the lesion. ANS: C REF: 145
  3. The pathological change associated with scleroderma is: a. abnormal activation of T lymphocytes and an increase of cytokines. b an autoimmune reaction damaging the epidermis. .collagen deposits in the small blood vessels of the skin and sometimes the c. viscera.d . Type I hypersensitivity and increased serum IgE levels. ANS: C REF: 147
  4. Choose the best description of the typical lesion of impetigo. a. Large, red, painful nodule filled with purulent exudates b. Small vesicles that rupture to produce a crusty brown pruritic mass c. Red, swollen, painful areas often with projecting red streaks d. Firm, raised papules that may have a rough surface and may be painful ANS: B REF: 149
  5. Choose the correct match of the skin condition and its usual location. a. Scabies—fingers, wrists, waist b. Impetigo—legs, feet c. Pediculosis humanus corporis—scalp d. Seborrheic keratosis—feet, hands ANS: A REF: 153
  6. Leprosy (Hansen’s disease) is caused by: a. a fungus. b. a bacterium. c. a virus. d. a helminth. ANS: B REF: 149

c. lacks A and B antibodies. d. lacks A and B antigens. ANS: D REF: 192

  1. What are the two circulations that comprise the overall circulatory system? a. Pulmonary and systemic circulations b. Peripheral and central circulations c. Cardiovascular and lymphatic circulations d. Cardiopulmonary and peripheral circulations ANS: A REF: 183
  2. Chronic blood loss causes anemia because of the: a. shortened life span of the erythrocytes. b. lower metabolic rate c. loss of protein and electrolytes. d. smaller amount of recycled iron available. ANS: D REF: 193
  3. What is the cause of sickle cell anemia? a. A defective gene inherited from both parents b. A chronic bacterial infection c. Bone marrow depression d. An autoimmune reaction ANS: A REF: 198
  4. Which of the following best describes the characteristic erythrocyte associated with pernicious anemia? a. Hypochromic, microcytic b. Normochromic, normocytic c. Elongated, sickle-shaped d. Megaloblastic or macrocytic nucleated cells ANS: D REF: 201
  5. What causes numbness and tingling in the fingers of individuals with untreated pernicious anemia? a. Persistent hyperbilirubinemia b. Increasing acidosis affecting metabolism c. Vitamin B12 deficit causing peripheral nerve demyelination d. Multiple small vascular occlusions affecting peripheral nerves

ANS: C REF: 195

  1. Jaundice is one typical sign of: a. sickle cell anemia. b. aplastic anemia. c. iron deficiency anemia. d. acute leukemia. ANS: A REF: 198
  2. What are the typical early general signs and symptoms of anemia? a. Chest pain, palpitations b. Jaundice, stomatitis c. Pallor, dyspnea, and fatigue d. Bradycardia, heat intolerance ANS: C REF: 193
  3. What is the cause of oral ulcerations and delayed healing occurring with any severe anemia? a. Lack of folic acid for DNA synthesis b. Frequent microinfarcts in the tissues c. Deficit of oxygen for epithelial cell mitosis and metabolism d. Elevated bilirubin levels in blood and body fluids ANS: C REF: 193
  4. Which of the following is present with pernicious anemia? a. Pancytopenia b. Hypochlorhydria c. Leukocytosis d. Multiple infarcts ANS: B REF: 195
  5. Why is pernicious anemia treated with injections of vitamin B12? a. An immune reaction in the stomach would destroy the vitamin. b. Digestive enzymes would destroy the vitamin. c. The vitamin irritates the gastric mucosa. d. The ingested vitamin would not be absorbed into the blood. ANS: D REF: 195

c. Thalassemia major d. Pernicious anemia ANS: D REF: 195

  1. In individuals with pernicious anemia, antibodies form to: a. vitamin B12. b. intrinsic factor or parietal cells c. mucus-producing glands. d. hydrochloric acid. ANS: B REF: 195
  2. In cases of polycythemia vera, blood pressure is elevated as a result of: a. increased blood volume. b. frequent infarcts in the coronary circulation. c. congested spleen and bone marrow. d. increased renin and aldosterone secretions. ANS: A REF: 205
  3. Petechiae and purpura are common signs of: a. excessive hemolysis. b. leucopenia. c. increased bleeding. d. hemoglobin deficit. ANS: C REF: 201
  4. Which statement applies to the disorder hemophilia A? a. It is transmitted as an X-linked dominant trait. b. There is usually a total lack of factor VIII in the blood c. Males and females can be carriers. d. Hematomas and hemarthroses are common. ANS: D REF: 203
  5. Which of the following occurs when disseminated intravascular coagulation develops? a. Increased thrombocytes and blood clotting b. Hemolysis with loss of blood cells c. Massive sepsis and hemorrhage d. Multiple thrombi and deficit of clotting factors ANS: D REF: 203-
  1. Which of the following substances acts as an anticoagulant? a. Prothrombin b. Heparin c. Fibrinogen d. Vitamin K ANS: B REF: 190
  2. In individuals with acute leukemia, the increased number of malignant leukocytes leads to:
  3. decreased hemoglobin.
  4. thrombocytopenia.
  5. bone pain with increased activity.
  6. splenomegaly. a. 1, 3 b. 1, 2, 4 c. 2, 3, 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4 ANS: B REF: 206-
  7. Multiple opportunistic infections develop with acute leukemia primarily because: a. the number of white blood cells is decreased. b. many circulating leukocytes are immature. c. severe anemia interferes with the immune response. d. decreased appetite and nutritional intake reduce natural defenses. ANS: B REF: 206-
  8. Why is excessive bleeding a common occurrence with acute leukemia? a. Deficit of calcium ions b. Impaired production of prothrombin and fibrinogen c. Decreased platelets d. Dysfunctional thrombocytes ANS: C REF: 206-
  9. Predisposing factors to leukemia commonly include: a. exposure to radiation. b. certain fungal and protozoal infections. c. familial tendency. d. cigarette smoking. ANS: A REF: 207

a. a defect in one or more genes for hemoglobin. b. an abnormal form of heme. c. abnormal liver production of amino acids and iron. d. overproduction of hypochromic, microcytic RBCs. ANS: A REF: 200

  1. Secondary polycythemia may be associated with: a. frequent angina attacks. b. certain types of anemia. c. severe chronic bronchitis. d. renal disease. ANS: C REF: 205
  2. All of the following apply to vitamin K EXCEPT: a. it is used as an antidote for warfarin (Coumadin). b. the liver requires it to produce prothrombin. c. it is a fat-soluble vitamin. d. the bone marrow requires it to synthesize hemoglobin. ANS REF:189 | 190 | 202
  3. Leukemia is sometimes linked to chromosome abnormalities, as evidenced by: a. the presence of Philadelphia chromosome translocation in cases of acute myelogenous leukemia (AML). b. very low incidence in persons with Down syndrome. c.little evidence of familial incidence. d. transmission as a recessive gene. ANS: A REF: 206-
  4. Iron deficiency anemia frequently results from any of the following EXCEPT: a. certain vegetarian diets. b. excessive menstrual flow. c. malabsorption syndromes. d. diabetes mellitus. ANS: D REF: 193
  5. Which of the following applies to the leukemias? a. Chronic leukemias are more common in older people. b. AML is the most common childhood leukemia. c. Exposure to chemicals is not considered a predisposing factor. d. Lymphoid tissue produces abnormal leukocytes.

ANS: A REF: 207

  1. A high percentage of blast cells in the leukocyte population indicates a poor prognosis for an individual with: a. thalassemia. b. acute myelogenous leukemia (AML). c. myelodysplastic syndrome. d. multiple myeloma. ANS: B REF: 208
  2. Which of the following applies to erythropoietin? a. It is produced by the liver. b. It increases iron absorption for heme production. c. It stimulates production of red blood cells. d. Hypoxia stimulates the red bone marrow to produce erythropoietin. ANS: C REF: 187 | 192
  3. Which of the following diagnostic tests would be within the normal range for an individual with hemophilia A? a. Bleeding time b. Coagulation time c. PTT time d. Prothrombin time ANS: A REF: 192
  4. Which of the following applies to the condition disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? a. It is usually a secondary complication. b. It is always initiated by excessive bleeding. c. It results in an inability of platelets to adhere. d. It is not life threatening. ANS: A REF: 203-
  5. In which blood dyscrasia does pancytopenia develop? a. Pernicious anemia b. Aplastic anemia c. Iron deficiency anemia d. Sickle cell anemia ANS: B REF: 205
  1. Which of the following factors greatly improves venous return to the heart during strenuous exercise? a. Rapid emptying of the right side of the heart b. Forceful action of the valves in the veins c. Contraction and relaxation of skeletal muscle d. Peristalsis in the large veins ANS: C REF: 224
  2. The function of the baroreceptors is to: stimulate the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous system at the a. sinoatrial (SA) node as needed. b.. adjust blood pressure by changing peripheral resistance. c.sense a change in blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels. d signal the cardiovascular control center of changes in systemic blood. pressure. ANS: D REF: 225
  3. The normal delay in conduction through the AV node is essential for: a. preventing an excessively rapid heart rate. b. limiting the time for a myocardial contraction. c. allowing the ventricles to contract before the atria. d. completing ventricular filling. ANS: D REF: 225
  4. Which of the following is a result of increased secretion of epinephrine? a. Increased heart rate and force of contraction b. Decreased stimulation of the SA node and ventricles c. Vasoconstriction in skeletal muscles and kidneys d. Vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels ANS: A REF: 225
  5. Which of the following causes increased heart rate? a. Stimulation of the vagus nerve b. Increased renin secretion c. Administration of beta-blocking drugs d. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system ANS: D REF: 230
  1. The event that causes the QRS wave on an electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing is: a. atrial depolarization. b. atrial repolarization. c. ventricular depolarization. d. ventricular repolarization. ANS: C REF: 225
  2. The cardiac reserve is: a. afterload. b. the difference between the apical and radial pulses. c. the ability of the heart to increase cardiac output when needed. d. the extra blood remaining in the heart after it contracts. ANS: C REF: 228
  3. The term preload refers to: a. volume of venous return. b. peripheral resistance. c. stroke volume. d. cardiac output. ANS: A REF: 228
  4. The first arteries to branch off the aorta are the: a. common carotid arteries. b. pulmonary arteries. c. coronary arteries. d. subclavian arteries. ANS: C REF: 226
  5. Cardiac output refers to: a. the amount of blood passing through either of the atria. b. the volume of blood ejected by a ventricle in one minute. c. the volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in a single contraction. d. the total number of heartbeats in one minute. ANS: B REF: 228
  6. Vasodilation in the skin and viscera results directly from: a. decreased blood pressure. b. increased parasympathetic stimulation. c. relaxation of smooth muscle in the arterioles.

b. decreases serum lipid levels. c. promotes platelet adhesion. d. increases serum HDL levels. ANS: C REF: 237-

  1. The term arteriosclerosis specifically refers to: a. development of atheromas in large arteries. b. intermittent vasospasm in coronary arteries. c. degeneration with loss of elasticity and obstruction in small arteries. d. ischemia and necrosis in the brain, kidneys, and heart. ANS: C REF: 234
  2. A modifiable factor that increases the risk for atherosclerosis is: a. leading a sedentary lifestyle. b. being female and older than 40 years of age. c. excluding saturated fats from the diet. d. familial hypercholesterolemia. ANS: A REF: 238
  3. An atheroma develops from: a. a torn arterial wall and blood clots. b. accumulated lipids, cells, and fibrin where endothelial injury has occurred. c. thrombus forming on damaged walls of veins. d. repeated vasospasms. ANS: B REF: 234
  4. Low-density lipoproteins (LDL): a. promote atheroma development. b. contain only small amounts of cholesterol. c. transport cholesterol from cells to the liver for excretion. d. are associated with low intake of saturated fats. ANS: A REF: 235
  5. Factors that may precipitate an angina attack include all of the following EXCEPT: a. eating a large meal. b. engaging in an angry argument. c. taking a nap. d. shoveling snow on a cold, windy day. ANS: C REF: 240
  1. When comparing angina with myocardial infarction (MI), which statement is true? a. Both angina and MI cause tissue necrosis. b. Angina often occurs at rest; MI occurs during a stressful time. c.Pain is more severe and lasts longer with angina than with MI.d Angina pain is relieved by rest and intake of nitroglycerin; the pain of MI is. not. ANS: D REF: 234
  2. The basic pathophysiology of myocardial infarction is best described as: a. cardiac output that is insufficient to meet the needs of the heart and body. b. temporary vasospasm that occurs in a coronary artery. c. total obstruction of a coronary artery, which causes myocardial necrosis. d. irregular heart rate and force, reducing blood supply to coronary arteries. ANS: C REF: 240
  3. Typical early signs or symptoms of myocardial infarction include: a. brief, substernal pain radiating to the right arm, with labored breathing. b. persistent chest pain radiating to the left arm, pallor, and rapid, weak pulse. c. bradycardia, increased blood pressure, and severe dyspnea. d. flushed face, rapid respirations, left-side weakness, and numbness. ANS: B REF: 241
  4. The most common cause of a myocardial infarction is: a. an imbalance in calcium ions. b. an infection of the heart muscle. c. atherosclerosis involving an attached thrombus. d. a disruption of the heart conduction system. ANS: C REF: 240
  5. Calcium-channel blocking drugs are effective in: a. reducing the risk of blood clotting. b. decreasing the attraction of cholesterol into lipid plaques. c. reducing cardiac and smooth muscle contractions. d. decreasing all types of cardiac arrhythmias. ANS: C REF: 261
  6. Which of the following confirms the presence of a myocardial infarction? a. A full description of the pain, including the sequence of development b. The presence of elevated serum cholesterol and triglycerides c. Serum isoenzymes released from necrotic cells and an ECG