WGU Pathophysiology D236.docx.., Exams of Nursing

WGU Pathophysiology D236.docx..

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WGU Pathophysiology D236
Describe how your body responds to an infection. - correct answer T cells produce
cytokines, which stimulate B cells. B cells produce antibodies.
Identify role of DNA changes in congenital abnormalities. - correct answer Mutations
in genes or chromosomal abnormalities
How does development disrupts congenital abnormalities? - correct answer
Alterations of DNA
Describes factors that disrupt homeostasis and how disruptions affect wellbeing. -
correct answer (ex) Fluid and electrolyte shifts can cause n/v or dysrhythmias.
Explain RAAS - correct answer Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
1. Reduce blood flow causes kidneys to release renin
> produce angiotensin I > converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II >
vasoconstriction > release aldosterone > kidneys conserve sodium and water >
Result less water lost in urine and blood pressure maintained.
DKA - correct answer increased anion gap, decreased HCO3
How do kidneys compensate for alkalosis - correct answer retain H and excrete
HCO3
Untreated acidosis leads to an increase in which electrolyte? - correct answer
Potassium
West Nile Virus - correct answer Transmitted through the bite of an infected
mosquito. Severe signs and symptoms; high fever, headache and stiff neck
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WGU Pathophysiology D

Describe how your body responds to an infection. - correct answer T cells produce cytokines, which stimulate B cells. B cells produce antibodies. Identify role of DNA changes in congenital abnormalities. - correct answer Mutations in genes or chromosomal abnormalities How does development disrupts congenital abnormalities? - correct answer Alterations of DNA Describes factors that disrupt homeostasis and how disruptions affect wellbeing. - correct answer (ex) Fluid and electrolyte shifts can cause n/v or dysrhythmias. Explain RAAS - correct answer Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

  1. Reduce blood flow causes kidneys to release renin > produce angiotensin I > converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II > vasoconstriction > release aldosterone > kidneys conserve sodium and water > Result less water lost in urine and blood pressure maintained. DKA - correct answer increased anion gap, decreased HCO How do kidneys compensate for alkalosis - correct answer retain H and excrete HCO Untreated acidosis leads to an increase in which electrolyte? - correct answer Potassium West Nile Virus - correct answer Transmitted through the bite of an infected mosquito. Severe signs and symptoms; high fever, headache and stiff neck

Lyme disease - correct answer Tick-borne disease caused by the spirochete Borrelia burgdorferi. Erythema infectiosum - correct answer a febrile upper respiratory illness in a child followed by the sudden appearance of red, flushed cheeks, "fifth disease" Obesity ad diabetes are risk factors for having a child with _____. - correct answer Spina bifida Trousseau's sign - correct answer arm/carpal spasm associated with hypocalcemia Cause and sign of spina bifida - correct answer results from failure of neural tube to close. sign - fluid filled sac on lower back. hemophilia is more common in - correct answer males Prenatal exposure to alcohol includes - correct answer ND-PAE, decreased brain function, FAS Connective vs muscle tissue disorders - correct answer Connective- RA, Scleroderma, Lupus Muscle - MS, Muscular dystrophy, Myasthenia Gravia Describe Lupus - correct answer Inflammatory disorder characterized by joint pain and butterfly rash Describe Myasthenia Gravis - correct answer It is an autoimmune disorder where antibodies attack own Ach receptors. This causes weakness of skeletal muscles over the course of the day, along with ptosis, double vision, and difficulty swallowing. dermatitis - correct answer inflammation of the skin

Paget disease - correct answer Chronic inflammation of bones, resulting in thickening and softening of bones, that can occur in any bone but most commonly affects the long bones of the legs, the lower spine, the pelvis, and the skull communiuted fracture - correct answer splintered into many pieces Three types of skin cancer - correct answer 1. Basal cell carcinoma

  1. Squamous cell carcinoma
  2. Melanoma basal cell carcinoma - correct answer Most common and least severe type of skin cancer; often characterized by light or pearly nodules. Rarely metastasize, most common on face due to sun exposure squamous cell carcinoma - correct answer Type of skin cancer more serious than basal cell carcinoma; often characterized by scaly red crusted papules or firm nodules. Melanoma - correct answer The most serious form of skin cancer, caucasian males at highest risk, usually black or brown lesion consequences when integumentary system is disrupted - correct answer impaired immunity types of burns - correct answer Superficial (1st degree) - red/painful Partial-thickness (2nd degree) -wet/pink/painful Full-thickness (3rd degree) -white/swollen/no pain Viltigo - correct answer localized loss of skin pigmentation characterized by milk- white patches ischemic CVA vs hemorrhagic CVA - correct answer ischemic - clot vs hemorrhagic - blood

subdural hematoma - correct answer collection of blood under the dura mater Alzheimer's disease vs parkinson's disease - correct answer Alz - affects language and memory Park - affects all executive functioning Huntington's disease - correct answer Genetic disorder that causes progressive deterioration of brain cells. caused by a dominant allele. symptoms do not appear until about the age of 30. involves involuntary muscle movement Sclerosis - correct answer abnormal condition of hardening disorders that cause vision loss - correct answer glaucoma - loss of pheripheral vision, cataracts - cloudy vision, retinal detachment - floaters, flashes, curtain vision kyphosis - correct answer excessive outward curvature of the spine, causing hunching of the back. disorders that cause hearing loss - correct answer Meniere's disease - changes in fluid in tube of inner ear (imbalance and vertigo), Otitis media - middle ear infection Predisposing factors of ischemic stroke - correct answer a fib, carotid stenosis, cerebral arteriosclerosis rheumatoid arthritis - correct answer A chronic systemic disease characterized by inflammation of the joints, stiffness, pain, and swelling that results in crippling deformities. Causes elevated WBC counts. cerebral contusion - correct answer the bruising of brain tissue as the result of a head injury that causes the brain to bounce against the rigid bone of the skull; symptoms: ringing in ears, severe headache, n/v. TIA vs CVA - correct answer TIA =

benign vs malignant hypertension - correct answer benign - "essential hypertension", chronic vascular damage due to sodium retention. malignant - acute vascular damage due to renin release communicable disease - correct answer A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another. infectious disease - correct answer A disease that is caused by a pathogen and that can be spread from one individual to another. myocardial infarction causes damage to - correct answer arteries of : brain, retina, heart, kidneys. what is expected in right sided heart falure - correct answer JVD what characterizes hypertensive crisis - correct answer systolic BP > 180 types of anemia - correct answer - Aplastic (decreased or missing RBC production)

  • Iron Deficiency
  • Folic Acid Deficiency
  • Vitamin B12 Deficiency/Pernicious
  • Hemolytic (breakdown of RBCs faster than produced)
  • Sickle Cell (RBCs die too early, shortage of RBCs) Where does cancer originate from in leukemia? - correct answer bone marrow CD4 cells - correct answer Helper T cells that mature in thymus that active B cells to create immunity Hodgkin's lymphoma - correct answer distinguished from other lymphomas by the presence of large, cancerous lymphocytes known as Reed-Sternberg cells

Lymphocytosis - correct answer abnormal increase in lymphocytes, asymptomatic Stable angina - correct answer predictable and consistent pain that occurs on exertion and is relieved by rest and/or nitroglycerin Upper respiratory tract infection - correct answer common cold, laryngitis, croup, pharyngitis, rhinitis, sinusitis, and tonsillitis lower respiratory tract infection - correct answer pneumonia, bronchitis, tuberculosis conditions that lead to COPD - correct answer smoking, asthma, dust, chemicals, genetics pnemonia - correct answer an inflammation in the lung caused by infection from bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites, or resulting from aspiration of chemicals. Hear crackles and rhonchi. Asthma - correct answer treatment resistant bronchospasm, same category of COPD pneumothorax - correct answer air in the pleural cavity caused by a puncture of the lung or chest wall cor pulmonale - correct answer right-sided heart failure arising from chronic lung disease Coal Worker's Pneumoconiosis - correct answer Carbon dust, seen in coal miners. Massive exposure leads to diffuse fibrosis('black lung') common characteristics of chronic digestive system disorders - correct answer (Celiac, Chron's, Colitis...) Abdominal pain, weight loss, changes in urination/bowel movements, bleeding, diarrhea, n/v....

Hepatisis A,B,C,D,E spreads - correct answer A and E - fecal/oral BCD - blood, bodily fluids Cholecystitis - correct answer inflammation of the gallbladder; usually associated with gallstones (RUQ pain radiates to back) GERD cause - correct answer failure of the lower esophageal sphincter to close pancreatitis - correct answer inflammation of the pancreas, can be cause by gallstone blocks common bile duct Chron's disease - correct answer A chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the lining of the digestive tract, chronic symptoms: diarrhea, sores, fistula, weight loss Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) - correct answer rapid loss of renal function due to damage to the kidneys; formerly called acute renal failure Colon cancer symptoms/signs? - correct answer 1. Right sided - iron deficiency anemia

  1. Left sided - obstruction
  2. "Apple core" lesion on barium enema
  3. Pencil thin stools
  4. Hematochezia (bright red blood)
  5. Colicky pain
  6. Partial obstruction risk factors for renal cancer - correct answer smoking, overweight, HTN risk factors for bladder cancer - correct answer Smoking**, occupational exposure to dyes (benzenes, aromatic amines), Hx of gross hematuria, >40 y/o, hx of urologic

disorder, Hx of irritative voiding symptoms, Hx of UTI, analgesic abuse, history of pelvic irradiation GFR (glomerular filtration rate) - correct answer used to stage chronic renal disease common characteristics of endocrine system disorders - correct answer dark skin spots, low BP, fatigue, n/v/d common treatments for prostate and testicular cancers - correct answer orchiectomy or radiation pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) - correct answer inflammation and infection of organs in the pelvic region; symptoms: pain in pelvis, abd, vagina, during sex, during urination, cramps, vaginal dischrge/odor Thyroid cancer - correct answer Papillary carcinoma, lump in neck - dysphagia, voice changes Graves disease - correct answer an autoimmune disorder that is caused by hyperthyroidism and is characterized by goiter and/or exophthalmos. Other symptoms/signs: tachycardia, thick patch of skin on legs, protruding eyes, weight- loss, insomnia Hypothyroidism - correct answer A disorder caused by a thyroid gland that is slower and less productive than normal -T3 and T4 are low, but TSH high. chronic fatigue, brittle nails, constipation Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) - correct answer a complication of diabetes that is caused by having too little insulin; also called hyperglycemia. can cause cerebral edema; lipolysis with ketone formation is a hallmark. causes of diabetes - correct answer type 1: beta cells in pancreas are destroyed (autoimmune) type 2: overweight, body becomes insulin resistant gestational: hormones during pregnancy cause glucose levels to rise

anemia can cause - correct answer pelvic pain, menorrhagia, constipation, uterine leiomyomas epididymitis - correct answer inflammation of the epididymis that is frequently caused by the spread of infection from the urethra or the bladder or by chlamadia Chlamydia - correct answer A bacterial infection that affects the reproductive organs of both males and females; male symptoms include penile discharge, uncomfortable walking Cryotherapy - correct answer using cold for therapeutic purposes, used for prostate therapy Explain Starling's Law of Capillary Forces and how it causes edema. - correct answer Starling's hypothesis states that the fluid movement due to filtration across the wall of a capillary is dependent on the balance between the hydrostatic pressure gradient and the pressure gradient across the capillary. This causes edema by the retention of water in the tissues instead of vascular system. Why is it important to maintain a homeostatic balance of glucose in the blood? - correct answer glucose is used for energy and is not synthesized by the brain, so it is needed to maintain brain/motor functions Compare and contrast Type I and Type II Diabetes - correct answer Type 1- The body's immune system destroys the cells in the pancreas that produces insulin (typically in kids/ teens) Type 2- "insulin resistance" - when cells fail to respond normally to the hormone insulin. Differentiate between Innate Immunity and Adaptive Immunity - correct answer Innate immunity is the body's first line of defense against pathogens. It is general and non-specific, which means it does not differentiate between types of pathogens. Adaptive immunity is a type of immunity that is built up as we are exposed to diseases or get vaccinated. Describe how and why our injury response results in the signs of redness, swelling, heat, and pain? Be sure to use chemokines, histamine, and vasodilation in your

response. - correct answer Our body first releases cytokines which produce inflammatory cells or chemokines directly to the affected area to stimulate healing. Vasodilation occurs simultaneously to facilitate quicker and easier movement of inflammatory cells to the area. Describe how to determine the probability of clinical outcomes given information about the parents (eg two heterozygous carriers of sickle cell disease) - correct answer in two heterozygous (two different gene sets) carriers (one dominant and one recessive gene) creates a 50% chance outcome of offspring having sickle cell disease Describe how calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, and calcitriol (Vitamin D) work together to maintain normal blood calcium levels. - correct answer calcitonin and PTH work oppositely to balance calcium. the three work together to shift calcium into bones, organs and blood Describe the function of osteocytes within lacunae of bone - correct answer Osteocytes maintain bone mass through anabolic activities; they promote bone repair through recruitment of osteoclast mediated turnover Describe bone remodeling. Which cells are involved in this process and what is their function? - correct answer osteoclasts destroy old, degenerative cells to make room for new ones. osteoblasts build new bone cells. osteocytes facilitate this process and help retain calcium for bone strength and health. Describe the process of articular degeneration. Which cells are involved in this process and what is their function? - correct answer articular degeneration is also known as osteoarthritis. macrophages are the primary cell involved, and they induce inflammation. How does denosumab treat osteoporosis? - correct answer Denosumab is an antibody that slows down the natural rate your bones are broken down. It works by blocking a protein and suppressing the cells that break down bone. How does compartment syndrome develop? Which part of our body tends to develop compartment syndrome? How do patients typically recognize they may need to seek medical assistance for rhabdomyolysis? What is the most sensitive laboratory test for rhabdomyolosis? - correct answer Compartment syndrome occurs

Emphysema (COPD) - correct answer Overdistention of alveoli resulting in the ability to remove CO2 is called COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) - correct answer disease with enlarged lung spaces, usually from smoking can cause shortness of breath What are the three types of jaundice that may present as a result of liver dysfunction? Describe the cause of each. - correct answer pre-hepatic: excessive breakdown of RBCs. hepatic: loss of ability of liver to regular billirubin. post-hepatic: due to blockage or obstruction Describe the function(s) of the following parts of a nephron: glomerulus, Bowman's capsule, juxtaglomerular apparatus, proximal tubule, Loop of Henle, distal tubule, and collecting duct. - correct answer glomerulus filters blood. Bowman's capsule filters blood from glomerulus capillaries. juxtaglomerular apparatus helps maintain proper flow and blood pressure. proximal tubule reabsorbs filtrate. Loop of Henle reabsorbs salt and water from urine. distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct both reabsorb ions and water and promote homeostasis. endocarditis vs pericarditis - correct answer endo- inflammation inside heart causing valves to not fully close - usually due to infection - treatment: abx, valve repair; peri- inflammation outside of heart causes heart to be compressed and not fully pump - from too much fluid / blood surrounding heart from trauma or heart attack - treatment: NSAIDs + steroids, pericardiocentesis. both have same signs/symptoms: low oxygen and chest pain Hypervalemia - correct answer fluid volume excess s/s: muscle/chest pain, weakness, n/v, palpitations Hypernatremia - correct answer high sodium: S (Skin flushed)

A (agitation) L (low grade fever ) T (thirst)