Test King ITIL, Notas de estudo de Análise de Sistemas de Engenharia

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Exin EX0-

ITIL Foundation Certificate in

IT

Service Management

Q&A with explanations

Version 4.

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Answer: C Explanation: ITIL terminology defines an incident as: Any event which is not part of the standard operation of a service and which causes, or may cause, an interruption to, or a reduction in, the quality of that service. The first goal of the incident management process is to restore a normal service operation as quickly as possible and to minimize the impact on business operations, thus ensuring that the best possible levels of service quality and availability are maintained.

QUESTION NO: 3.

When must a Post Implementation Review take place?

A. after every Change B. at the request of the person who submitted the Change request C. in case of emergency changes D. if another incident of the same type occurs again after a Change has been made

Answer: A Explanation: A Post Implementation Review (PIR) is a formal review of a programme or project. It is used to answer the question: Did we achieve what we set out to do, in business terms and if not, what should be done? The PIR must be a part of every change process.

QUESTION NO: 4.

Which activity is not the responsibility of IT Service Continuity Management?

A. analyzing risks B. testing back-out arrangements C. drawing up back-out scenarios D. executing impact analyses of incidents related to the back-out facilities

Answer: D Explanation:

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Business Continuity Management (BCM) is concerned with managing risks to ensure that at all times an organisation can continue operating to, at least, a pre-determined minimum level. The BCM process involves reducing the risk to an acceptable level and planning for the recovery of business processes should a risk materialize and a disruption to the business occur. A structured Incident Management processes includes classification, categorisation, impact and priority assessment, and monitoring and tracking of incidents.

QUESTION NO: 5.

Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor the IT services by maintaining a logical model of the IT infrastructure and IT services?

A. Capacity Management B. Change Management C. Configuration Management D. Financial Management for IT services

Answer: C Explanation: Configuration Management is the implementation of a database (Configuration Management Database - CMDB) that contains details of the organisation's elements that are used in the provision and management of its IT services. This is more than just an 'asset register', as it will contain information that relates to the maintenance, movement, and problems experienced with the Configuration Items.

QUESTION NO: 6.

According to the Deming quality circle a number of steps must be performed repeatedly in order to ensure good performance. Which of the following answers specifies the correct sequence for these steps?

A. Act - Check - Do - Plan B. Check - Plan - Act - Do C. Do - Plan - Check - Act D. Plan - Do - Check - Act

Answer: D Explanation: The Deming's quality circle is also known as Deming's PDCA circle, Plan - Do - Check - Act.

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B. implementing the process C. describing the process D. the result of the process

Answer: D Explanation: The process owner is responsible for the result of the process and has to actively work with improving the structure and flow of the process.

QUESTION NO: 9.

What is the difference between a process and a project?

A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a project has a finite lifespan. B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a finite lifespan. C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a project does not stop when the objective is met. D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the result is important.

Answer: A Explanation: Projects are objective-based and have clear start and end points (although I've been on some projects that never seemed to end, but that's another story). Operational processes are those that continue ad infinitum and are typically sustaining in nature.

QUESTION NO: 10.

What is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management?

A. departments B. IT resources C. officials D. interrelated activities

Answer: D Explanation: The definition of a process - A process is a set of interrelated activities and/or subprocesses and/or (sub)stages with a common goal, and ITIL focuses on best practice (process) that can be utilized in different ways according to need.

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QUESTION NO: 11.

Which of the following is a benefit of using ITIL?

A. that the users can influence the IT organization providing the IT services B. that the quality and the costs of the IT services can be controlled more efficiently C. that the organization around the IT services can be set up faster D. that it is finally possible to charge for IT services

Answer: B Explanation: By improving the processes around IT, the organization can begin to:

• Improve resource utilization
• Be more competitive
• Decrease rework
• Eliminate redundant work
• Improve upon project deliverables and time
• Improve availability, reliability and security of mission critical IT-services
• Justify the cost of service quality
• Provide services that meet business, customer and user demands
• Integrate central processes
• Document and communicate roles and responsibilities in service provision
• Learn from previous experience
• Provide demonstrable performance indicators

QUESTION NO: 12.

Which activity takes place immediately after recording and registering an incident?

A. analysis and diagnosis B. classification C. matching D. solving and restoring

Answer: B Explanation:

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A. Change Management B. Incident Management C. Problem Management D. Configuration Management

Answer: A Explanation: Change Management provides a way of managing and controlling the way changes are initiated, assessed, planned for, scheduled and implemented. The scope of Change Management may include, but is not limited to:

1. components of the IT infrastructure (e.g. hardware, software and documentation)
2. IT services (SLAs)
3. IT service organizations (e.g. organizational structure and procedures).

QUESTION NO: 14.

Information is regularly exchanged between Problem Management and Change Management. What information is this?

A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which Change Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs) B. RFCs resulting from Known Errors C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change Management D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to Change Management

Answer: B Explanation: As shown in the figure there is a Request For Change that is sent to the Change Management process once a solution is defined for a Known Error.

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C. Incident Management D. Service Desk

Answer: D Explanation: The common Service Desk functions include:

• Receiving calls, first-line customer liaison
• Recording and tracking incidents and complaints
• Keeping customers informed on request status and progress
• Making an initial assessment of requests, attempting to resolve them or refer them to someone who can
• Monitoring and escalation procedures relative to the appropriate SLAs
• Identifying problems
• Closing incidents and confirmation with the customers
• Coordinating second-line and third line support

QUESTION NO: 18.

Which activity is not a Service Desk activity?

A. registering Incidents B. solving a Problem C. relating an incident to a Known Error D. applying temporary fixes

Answer: B Explanation: The IT Infrastructure Library approach to a Service Desk acts as the central point of contact between service providers and users/customers, on a day-to-day basis. It is also a focal point for reporting Incidents and for users making service requests. It handles incidents and service requests, as well as providing an interface, with users, for other Service Management activities such as Change, Problem, Configuration, Release, Service Level and IT Service Continuity Management. The Service desk is the point of contact to the problem solvers and change managers but they do not perform these tasks themselves.

QUESTION NO: 19.

Who is responsible for tracking and monitoring an incident?

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A. Problem Manager B. Problem Management staff C. Service Desk D. Service Level Manager

Answer: C Explanation: The common Service Desk functions include:

• Receiving calls, first-line customer liaison
• Recording and tracking incidents and complaints
• Keeping customers informed on request status and progress
• Making an initial assessment of requests, attempting to resolve them or refer them to someone who can
• Monitoring and escalation procedures relative to the appropriate SLAs
• Identifying problems
• Closing incidents and confirmation with the customers
• Coordinating second-line and third line support

QUESTION NO: 20.

The Service Desk receives different types of calls. Which of the following is an incident?

A. information about the rollout of a specific application B. a notification that a new toner cartridge has just been installed in a printer C. a system message that a printer is not working D. a request to install a new bookkeeping package

Answer: C Explanation: An incident is defined as: Any event which is not a part of the standard operation of a system that causes, or may cause, an interruption to, or a reduction in, the quality of service.

QUESTION NO: 21.

Which of the following is a department rather than a process?

A. Change Management B. Incident Management

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Answer: D Explanation: Managing Known Errors, or Error Control, is a vital part of the Problem Management process, this part of the Problem Management process is used once the root cause for a problem is identified. Without the Error Control there would never be any solutions and closure of problems.

QUESTION NO: 24.

Which status is a problem assigned once its cause has been identified?

A. Incident B. Known Error C. Work-around D. Request for Change (RFC)

Answer: B Explanation: Once the root cause for a problem is identified the problem is transferred into the Error Control part of the Problem Management process and the problem is classified as a Known Error (possibly with a work-around).

QUESTION NO: 25.

Which activity in the Problem Management process is responsible for generating Requests for Change (RFCs)?

A. Problem Analysis B. Error Control C. Monitoring D. Proactive Problem Management

Answer: B Explanation: Once a problem is classified as a Known Error it is transferred from Problem Control to Error Control. Within the Error Control activity the work with defining a solution to the Known Error starts, once a solution is produced a RFC is sent to Change Management prior to deploying the solution.

QUESTION NO: 26.

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When the cause of one or more incidents is not known, additional resources are assigned to identify the cause. Which ITIL process is responsible for this?

A. Capacity Management B. Incident Management C. Problem Management D. Service Level Management

Answer: C Explanation: Refer to the Problem Management process which shows you how it is divided into two parts. One that works with problems with an unknown cause and one that works with known errors (problem with a known cause)

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QUESTION NO: 27.

Which ITIL process provides change proposals in order to eliminate structural errors?

A. IT Service Continuity Management B. Availability Management C. Security Management D. Problem Management

Answer: D Explanation: Once a solution is defined for a known error in the Problem Management process a change proposal, or Request for Change (RFC), is sent to the Change Management. Once the change is committed the Problem Management process continues with a Post Implementation Review (PIR) and if the changes made solved the problem then the process continues to the Problem Closure stage. Remember, Problem Management produces solutions and Change Management deploys the solutions throughout the organization.

QUESTION NO: 28.

When is a Known Error identified?

A. When the cause of the problem is known. B. When the incident has been sent to Problem Management. C. When the problem is known. D. When the problem has been resolved.

Answer: A Explanation: Once the cause is known for a problem the problem is classified as a known error and a work-around may be provided until a solution is produced and deployed.

QUESTION NO: 29.

Which of the following tasks is part of proactive Problem Management?

A. making a change to resolve a problem B. registering frequently occurring errors C. analyzing trends D. managing Known Errors

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Answer: C Explanation: Problem prevention ranges from prevention of individual Problems, such as repeated difficulties with a particular feature of a system, through to strategic decisions. Problem prevention also includes information being given to Customers that negates the need to ask for assistance in the future. Analysis focuses on providing recommendations on improvements for the Problem solvers. The main activities within proactive Problem Management processes are trend analysis and the targeting of preventive action.

QUESTION NO: 30.

Which ITIL process is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors?

A. Capacity Management B. Incident Management C. Problem Management D. Security Management

Answer: C Explanation: In ITIL, a "Problem" is defined as: "An unknown underlying cause of one or more incidents." Therefore Problem Management should be responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors.

QUESTION NO: 31.

Which of the following is an example of proactive Problem Management?

A. a report regarding the Problem Management process B. a trend analysis C. an urgent change D. a change request

Answer: B Explanation: